Wednesday, December 6, 2017

Structured Self-Development Level 2 Question and Answer (SSD2|Module 1, 2, 3)


Structured Self-Development Level 2 Question and Answer (Module 1, 2, 3)

Please Read Below Questions prior to Test
Q- What is the purpose of adversary collection activities?
To obtain and exploit indicators that will negatively impact a mission
Q- What are the names of the army's intelligence functions?
All-Source Intelligence Human Intelligence (HUMINT)
Imagery Intelligence (IMINT)
Signals Intelligence (SIGINT)
Measurement and Signatures Intelligence (MASINT)
Technical Intelligence (TECHINT)
Counterintelligence (CI)
Q- The Completed DA Form 5434 will be Forwarded from which of the following organization?
            The gaining MACOM….
            The Losing Activity……
            The Unit of ……
Q-An adversary analyst uses bits and pieces of information and data to develop what outcome?
            His intelligence estimate
Q- What are the three sub-intelligence discipline in signal intelligence (SIGINT)?
COMINT, ELINT, FISINT
Q- What are the two classifications of critical information?
            Classified and unclassified
Q- Sponsorship support consist of following
            Training for youth sponsors
            Training for unit …..
Q- In which step of the OPSEC process do you select and implement tentative OPSEC measures?
Assessment of risk
Q- What does an adversary use to formulate the analyst's perception of our operations?
            Indicators
Q- Operation security (OPSEC) is used to identify which of the following?
            Actions that can be observed by adversary intelligence systems
Q- Family with foreign born spouses will receive support and assistance that indicates the following:
            Cross- Culture……..
            Culture mediation ….
            A Comprehensive
Q- Which of the following describes mentoring? 
                A future-oriented development activity focused on growing in the profession

Q- Operation Security (OPSEC) is used to identify which of the following?
                           Actions that can be observed by adversary intelligence systems
Q- What are the three primary questions to ask when conducting a preliminary inquiry?
 Was an offense committed?
Was the Soldier involved in the offense?
What is the character and military record of the suspect?

Q- Sponsorship is a ---------------  program?
           Commander’s
Q- What DA Form will you use when conducting quarterly counseling?
           DA Form 2166-8-1
Q- Which of the following entries describe non-judicial punishment?
          Administrative reprimands and admonitions
Q-  When does the decision period start?
        When the soldier receives notification of formal proceedings under Article 15 and has a copy of         DA Form 2627 with items 1 and 2 completed.
Q- The _______ provides basic housekeeping items that incoming and outgoing family can?
               Landing Closet
Q- The commander who is imposing punishment may proceed with a hearing unless a Soldier decides to do which of the following?
      Demand trial by court martial
Q- Soldiers are given the opportunity, normally within 24 hours, to accept an Article 15.  In which of the following stages of the judicial process does this occur?
          Decision
Q- What is the purpose of non-judicial punishment?
         Deny pass or other privileges
Q- What is the minimum time requirement to be eligible to perform as the senior rater?
          60
Q- What year was the position of Sergeant Major of the Army established?
        1966
Q- In what year did the Army formalize and expand the functions of the NCO support channel?
        1976
Q- Which of the following is the keystone document in the joint operations series?
      JP 3-0
Q- When does the decision period start?
    Upon conclusion of the preliminary investigation
Q- What type of process is used within the Operations Security (OPSEC) program to protect critical information?
      A five step process
Q- Which system applies to those Soldiers who are not amenable to correction by non-punitive or non-judicial method of correction or discipline?
       Court-martial system
Q- During a court-martial, who represents the government?
       Trial counsel
Q- What three things should you accomplish in the process of determining the credibility of  evidence and information?
   - Determine if the act is in violation of standards or professional conduct, or if it is a breach of discipline or insubordination.
- Prepare your recommendation in memorandum format or as required by local directive
- Determine whether or not the Soldier committed an act.
Q-  Which system applies to those Soldiers who are not amenable to correction by nonpunitive or nonjudicial methods of correction or discipline?
    Court-martial system
Q- Soldiers and families returning to the United States from overseas duty station ……
   Reintegration
Q- The connection between the chain of command and the NCO support channel is the ________
       Senior NCO
Q- The _________ is the primary assistant and advisor to the platoon leader, with the responsibilities of…….
       Platoon Sergeant
Q- Which of the following relationships is prohibited?
      Any Relationship between ……….  And
      Any Relationship between ……….
Q- Which branches of service make up the nation’s principal maritime force?
              Navy and marine corps
Q- Which of the following presents five broad national security challenges likely to require the employment of joint forces?
      The Strategic Environment
Q- The goal of the court-martial system is to do what?
Administer Justice
Q- An act for which the law provides a penalty is called what?
          A crime
Q- What are the two types of court-martial counsel?
       Trail and Defense Counsel
Q- During a court-martial, who represents the government?
     Trial Counsel
Q- Which of the following is the maximum time limit a commander may impose for restriction
    14 Days
Q- Which legal measurements are primarily tools for teaching proper standards of conduct and performance and do not constitute punishment?
   Nonpunitive measures
Q- Which of the following is the maximum time limit a commander may impose for restriction?
 14 days
Q- What are the two types of court-martial counsel?
   Defense Counsel
Trial Counsel
Q- Which of the following is not a characteristic of effective counseling?
   Punishment
Q- What process do leaders use to review the demonstrated performance and potential of their subordinates? 
  Counseling
Q- When does the EO Policy apply?
     To those working……..
    Both On and Off post…..
Q- Sexual Harassment is form of __________ discrimination?
     Gender
Q-Interpersonal communication occurs at which two level?
   Content and Process
Q-________ Communication is vital assets in promotion organizational performance, moral……
   Efficient
Q -As you receive behavior cues to communication, you assign ________ to each communication…
    Purpose
Q- A(an) situation is one  involving two or more individuals who take account of each…
    Group
Q- what is the first step of the five performance steps that must be completed prior to conducting a counseling session?
   Determine the type of counseling
Q- Which DA Form will you use when conducting a mandatory, face to face performance counseling?
    DA 4856
Q- When is counseling conducted for NCO's?
Within 30 days after the beginning of the rating period and quarterly thereafter
Q- Which of the following describes mentoring?
  A future-oriented development activity focused on growing in the profession
Q- Which of the following is not a characteristic of effective counseling?
    Punishment
Q- What process do leaders use to review the demonstrated performance and potential of their subordinates?
  Counseling
Q- Which military operations are ongoing routine activities that establish, shape, maintain, and refine relations with other nations and domestic civil authorities?
      Major operations and campaigns
Q- Which branch of the US Armed Forces is composed of naval, land, air, space, and cyberspace forces, both combat and support, not otherwise assigned, that includes the necessary forces and capabilities to operate and support the Navy and Marine Corps, other military services, and joint forces?
    Navy
Q- Which branch of the US Armed Forces is composed of land combat and service forces, with includes aviation, water transport, and space and cyberspace?
     Marine Corps
Q- Which of the following are performance steps that must be completed to prepare for and conduct a counseling session?
   Prepare for counseling
- Gather support material
- Determine the type of counseling
Q- Which DA Form will you use when conducting mandatory, face to face performance counseling?
      DA Form 67-9
Q- When is counseling conducted for NCOs?
          Within 30 days after the beginning of a rating period and quarterly thereafter
Q- What is the first step of the five performance steps that must be completed prior to conducting a counseling session?
      Determine the type of counseling
Q- Which branch of the U.S. armed forces is responsible for the preparation of forces necessary for the effective prosecution of war?
      Army
Q- Which of the following additional principles are relevant to how the Armed Forces use combat power across the range of military operations?
     restraint, perseverance, and legitimacy
Q- Human communication is best understood as system where sender are _______receivers ….
    Simultaneously
Q- Communication is not complete if the ____ doesn’t listen.
   Receiver
Q- Effective Army Writing transmits a clear message in a single, rapid reading and….
     Usage, Mechanics, Grammar
Q- What are two reasons to avoid using passive voice?
    It hides the doers……..
   It creates sentences …….
Q- Error in spelling grammar and punctuation can leave a(n) ……..
   Negative
Q- Who is the principle military advisor to the President, the National Security Council (NSC), the homeland security council (HSC), and the secretary of defense?
   The chairman of the joint chiefs
Q-  Which military operations comprise extended-duration, large-scale operations that usually involve combat?
         Major Operations and campaigns
Q- On what are the principles of joint operations formed?
       Joint publication keystone document
Q- Which of the following are narrative rules for constructing bulleted comments?
       Bulleted comments are mandatory
Bulleted comments must not be longer than two lines
Use specific examples only once
Q- Which of the following are valid senior rater entries in the overall performance section?
Poor, Fair, Successful
Q- What links the day-to-day observation of the rated soldier to the long-term evaluation of the rated Soldier's potential by HQDA selection boards?
The rater's comments
Q- In which section of the senior rater's portion of an evaluation report would one document if a senior rater does not meet minimum time requirements for evaluation of the rated NCO?
Section e
Q- The APFT entry may be left blank in which of the following situations?
                60 years of age and older
If the APFT has not been taken within 12 months of the "THRU" date of the report
Q- Which senior rater entry in the overall performance section denotes performance that may require additional training/observation and non-recommendation for promotion?
Fair
Q- Which of the following ranks are not part of the formal chain of command?
            Command Sergeant Major
Q- Which military operations comprise small-scale, limited-duration operations, such as strikes, raids, and peace enforcement, which might include combat depending on the circumstances?
            Crisis Response and Limited Contingency Operations.
Q- On what are the principles of joint operations formed?
            Traditional principles of war
Q- Which military operations are ongoing routine activities that establish, shape, maintain, and refine relations with other nations and domestic civil authorities?
            Military Engagement, security cooperation, and deterrence.
Q- Which of the following are narrative rules for constructing bulleted comments?
             Bulleted comments are mandatory
            Bulleted comments must not be longer than two lines
            Use specific examples only once
Q-  Who was the first sergeant major of the army?
            William O. Wooldridge
Q- Which of the following ranks are responsible for developing, maintaining, and utilizing the full range of their Soldier's potential?
            Sergeants
Q- Which of the following ranks serve as the senior enlisted advisor and consultant to the chief of staff of the army?
            Sergeant Major
Q-  What regulation formalized the NCO support channel and expanded its functions in December 1976?
            AR 600-20
Q- In what year did the Army consolidate all enlisted ranks into seven pay grade, five of which were noncomissioned officers?
            1920
Q- What does the U.S. Army define as, "the process of putting our professional values into action"?
            Ethics
Q- The MSAF program is intended to help you become a better leader by better understanding your own_____ and ____.
            strengths, weaknesses
Q- The Multi-Source Assessment and Feedback (MSAF) program is under the organization and direction of the ______
            Center for Army Leadership (CAL)
Q- Which of the following terms comprise stages of awareness?
            Committed, Thoughtful, Habitual
Q- When SOP is submitted for peer review, it is normally sent….
            Platoon leader, platoon sergeant, Squad leader
Q- You can identify the____ for distribution by selecting the …..
            Target audience
Q- Reproducing and distribution requirements should be determined in ……
            Local (Unit)
Q- Which security classification would you apply to and SOP in which the…
            Top Secret
Q- The development of SOP’s based on __________ command policies.
            Local
Q- The ________course explores the expectations family members have of the army…..
            Level III
Q- The goal of the army family team building program is to assist family members of soldiers by:
            Preparing individuals….
            Enhancing personal…….
Q- The AFTB training program consists of level I, II, III, _________ and ____________ courses.
            Master Trainer…
            Program Manager
Q- A ___________ Overseas and supports all company Family Readiness Groups (FRGS) …..
            Rear Detachment Commander (RDC)
Q- Which of the following are techniques to enforces the EO program policies?
            Lead by examples
Q- _____ is a complex classification of human characteristics related to personal …..
            Diversity
Q- The goal of the     _________  is to facilitate an informal resolution, when possible of the matter .            
EOL
Q- Which of the following ranks are responsible for developing, maintaining, and utilizing the full range of their Soldier's potential?
            Sergeants
Q- Which of the following ranks are considered to have the greatest impact on soldiers due to their oversight of the soldier daily task
            Sergeants
Q- In 1851, a new uniform requirement establishment a system of branch colors, and chevrons reverted to the point-down position. In what year did the chevrons return to the point-up position?
            1902
Q- Which of the following terms can be defined as standards by which one should act based on values?
            Ethics
Q- The Multi-Source Assessment and Feedback (MSAF) program is under the organization and direction of the ______
            Center for Army Leadership (CAL)
Q- The Serious Incident Report (SIR) system provides which of the following agencies with early notice to the possibility or occurrence of a serious incident?
Headquarters, Department of the Army
Q- The reporting of terrorist activities falls under which reportable serious incident category?
            Category 1
Q - How many digits does the SIR number always contain?
            6
Q- The reporting of war crimes falls under which reportable serious incident category?
Category 1
Q- Which of the following is a summary document that provides information on collective training objectives, related individual training objectives, resource requirements, and applicable evaluation procedures for a type of organization?
Training and evaluation outline
Q- The process of building a unit’s capability to conduct full spectrum operations over time describes which of the following?
ARFORGEN
Q- __________is the ability to meet the physical demands of any combat or duty position
Physical Readiness 
Q- ___________provides the training and leader development methodology that forms the foundation for developing competent and confident Soldiers in the conduct
            ADRP 7-0 
Q- The Army PRT system is __________incorporating physically demanding activities that prepare Soldier and units to accomplish the physical requirements
            performance based 
Q- The long-range training plan covers which of the following for ARFORGEN units?
The period leading up to at least one readiness aim point
Q- The use of effective training to challenge leaders and organizations with uncertain conditions is a tenet of which principle of training? 
Train as you fight
Q- The reporting of incidents involving the wrongful possession, manufacture, or distribution of controlled substances, including narcotics, drugs, or marijuana, in the quantities of 100 grams or more (except for LSD, which is 6 grams or more) falls under which reportable serious incident category?
            Category2
Q- what are the three types of serious incident reports (SIR)?
            Add-on, Correction, Original Submission
Q- What term describe the systematic increase in the intensity or duration of PRT activities?
            Progression
Q- Which of the following choices are gradually increased to produce the desired physiological effect?
            Exercise Volume, Duration, and intensity
Q- who is responsible for the overall operation of the range before, during, and after live             firing? 
            The OIC
Q- Ensuring that firers enter and exit the firing line at the entry or exit point is an example of which of the following?
            Range safety program protocols
Q- who is responsible for the safe operation of the range?
            The RSO
Q- Direct observation, assessment, and honest feedback are tenets of which of the following leader-development principles?
            Take responsibility for developing subordinate leaders
Q- Which of the following is a responsibility of the unit ammunition detail?
            Ensure ammunition is broken down properly
Q- Who is responsible for the overall operation of the range before, during, and after live firing?
            OIC
Q- A combination of combat and operational stressors will produce which of the following?
            COSRs
Q- Which of the following choices is defined as a dynamic warm-up consisting of 10 exercises that appropriately prepare Soldiers for more intense PRT activities?
            Preparation Drill (PD)
Q- Who serves as the primary trainer for enlisted Soldiers, crews, and small teams?
NCO's
Q- How often should strength and mobility training be conducted?
            Every other day
Q- Who assists the OIC and safety officer by performing duties (for example, supervising enlisted personnel supporting the LFX) as required?
            Range NCOIC
Q- Which of the following choices are responsible for repairing rifles and replacing parts, as required?
Unit Armorer

Q- Which stress-reduction program includes trust and confidence in its foundation?

Leadership, plans, training

Q- Which of the following statements defines posttraumatic events (PTEs)?

An event which causes an individual or group to experience intense feelings of terror, horror, helplessness, and/or hopelessness
Q- What are the two levels of the Army maintenance system?  
Field and sustainment
Q- which of the following is the foundation of army maintenance?
            performance observations

Q- what are the four core maintenance processes?

            performance observation
            equipment services
            fault repair
            single standard repair
Q- Which of the following choices is a responsibility of the unit ammunition detail?
            Ensure ammunition is broken down properly
Q- Which of the following choices provide professional ministry support to leaders in fulfilling their combat and operational stress identification and intervention responsibilities?
            Unit Ministry Team (UMT)
Q- Commanders are required to take which of the following steps once a decision is made to request a routine/nonemergency CDE?
Notify the UMT
Q- Which of the following is an example of an operational stressor?
            Prolonged exposure to extreme geographical environments such as desert or arctic cold
Q- The ability to meet the physical demands of any combat or duty position, accomplish the mission, and continue to fight and win defines which of the following?
Physical readiness
Q-Precision, progression, and integration are the components of which of the following?
The principles of exercise
Q-Which of the following publications provides the training and leader development methodology that forms the foundation for developing competent and confident Soldiers?  
Fm 7-0
Q- what are the two levels of the army maintenance system?
            field and sustainment

Q- the purpose of the army maintenance system is:

            generate/regenerate combat power
            preserve the capital investment of weapons systems 
            to enable mission accomplishment
Q- Which maintenance function involves restoring an item to a completely serviceable or operational condition?
            overhaul
Q- Which of the following choices exemplify mild stress reactions of a physical nature?
            Jumpiness, Cold Sweat
Q- Which of the following choices is a form of Combat and Operational Stress Reaction (COSR) and most likely to occur in poorly trained undisciplined units?
            Misconduct stress behavior
Q- Which of the following choices is defined as a psychiatric illness that can occur following a traumatic event (such as combat exposure) in which there was a threat of injury or death to you or someone else?
            Post-traumatic stress disorder
Q- Which of the following identifies the purpose of the toughening phase of PRT?      
            Develop foundational fitness and fundamental movement skills
Q- Which form does the drive official issue to identify a licensed operator?
 
            346
Q- On what date does an Army operator's license expire? 
            same date as the individual's state driver's license
Q- what is the expiration date on a limited permit?
            one year from the date of issue
Q- Which of the following assets are generally available to the leadership in tactical environments?
All apply
Q- Which of the following choices may prevent the individual from performing their duties or create a concern for personal safety or the safety of others?
Severe stress reactions
Q- The Troop Leading Procedures (TLP) consist of how many steps?
8
Q- The reporting of incidents involving material damage that seriously degrades unit operational or training readiness falls under which reportable serious incident category?
            Category 1
Q- Which regulation defines the occurrence of an action or situation as a serious incident that may have important or dangerous results?
            AR 190–45
Q- the reporting of terrorist activities falls under which reportable serious incident category?
 
           Category 1
Q- What are the three types of serious incident reports (SIR)?
            SIR original submission Add–on  Correction

Q- Training to reach an accepted proficiency level is a tenet of which principle of training?
            Train to standard
Q- Unit training involves how many principles?
11
Q- Which principle of training focuses on individual and small-unit skills?
            Train fundamentals first
Q- Which of the following choices are involved with recovery operations?
            Dedicated, Self, and Like
Q- The reporting of racially or ethnically motivated criminal acts falls under which reportable serious incident category?
            Category 2
Q- Which core maintenance process specifies maintenance actions in accordance with the designer and engineer specifications?
            Equipment services
Q- The reporting of war crimes falls under which reportable serious incident category?
            Category 1

Q- Which of the following choices is defined as a dynamic warm-up consisting of 10 exercises that appropriately prepare Soldiers for more intense PRT activities?

            Preparation Drill
Q- PRT activity tasks, conditions, and standards are derived from which of the following?
            the mission analysis of the physical demands of unit mission           - core mission essential task list (C-METL) or directed mission essential task list (D- METL)
- warrior tasks and battle drills (WTBDs)
Q- who serves as the primary trainer for enlisted soldiers, crews, and small teams?
            NCOs
Q-what term describes the systematic increase in the intensity or duration of PRT activities?

            Progression
Q-  Which level of maintenance involves on-system maintenance, repair and return to the user, including maintenance actions performed by operators?
            Field Maintenance
Q- The reporting of racially or ethically motivated criminal acts falls under which reportable serious incident category?
            Category 2
Q- Which regulation defines the occurrence of an action or situation as a serious incident that may have important or dangerous results?
            AR 190-45
Q- Which regulation prescribe the policy and procedures for the conduct of the Army Physical Fitness Training Program and applies to all Soldiers, functional branches, units and operating agencies?
            AR 350-58
Q- Which of the following choices represent Army principles of training?
            Train to standard, Train to sustain, Train as you will fight
Q- which regulation prescribes the policy and procedure for the conduct of the army physical fitness training program and applies to all soldiers, functional branches, units, and operating agencies?
            AR 350-1
Q- who conducts a safety orientation before each schedule live-firing exercise (LFX)?
            Range Safety Officer.
Q- PRT activity tasks, conditions, and standards are derived from which of the following?
            W TBD, C-METL, Mission analysis of the physical demands of unit missions.
Q- Which of the following choices exemplify mild emotional stress reactions?
            Anxiety, Nightmares
Q- In which of the following situations is it proper to refer a Soldier for a Commander Directed Evaluation (CDE)?
            If the Soldier has a severe mental or substance use disorder
Q- Which of the following choices refer to positive outcomes that result from stress exposure and traumatic experience that include improved relationships, renewed hope for life, an improved appreciation of life, an enhanced sense of personal strength, and spiritual development?
            Post-traumatic growth
Q- Who is the only person authorized to request GREEN TIME, HOLD FIRE, or TERMINATION OF GREEN TIME?
            Officer in Charge (OIC)
Q- Which of the following assists fires with weapon-related problems and ensures that all fires observe safety regulations and procedures?
            Assistant Instructor
Q- Which of the following choices occur when you combine stressors with effective leadership and strong peer relationships to enhance individual and unit performances?
           
adaptive stress reactions 
Q- Which of the following choices constitutes grounds for an emergency referral for a soldier experiencing CoSRs?
            A severe mental or substance use disorder.
            Intent to inflict harm to self or others.
            Actual, attempted, or threatened violence
Q- Which principle of unit training focuses on those tasks most essential to mission accomplishment?
            Train to develop adaptability
Q- Who ensures that their Soldier's demonstrate proficiency in their individual military occupational specialty (commonly known as MOS) skills, warrior tasks, and battle drills?
            NCO
Q- Which core maintenance process uses operator and maintenance personnel to restore an equipment item to full functionality as originally designed or engineered?
            Fault repair
Q- Which core maintenance process involves problems that degrade equipment before they become catastrophic?
Performance observation
Q- Which of the following assets are generally available to the leadership in tactical environments?
Organic medical assets , Chaplains, Behavioral health assets 
Q- Which of the following choices may prevent the individual from performing their duties or create a concern for personal safety or the safety of others?
           
Severe stress reactions

Q- Which of the following choices is a form of combat and operational stress reaction (cosr) and most likely to occur in poorly trained undisciplined units?

            Misconduct stress behavior 
Q- Which of the following choices best predicts combat resiliency?
            Unit cohesion and morale
Q- Which of the following choices may be signaled by changes in behavior and discernible only to the individual soldier or close comrades?
            Mild stress reaction
Q- ____ may develop after someone has experienced or witnessed an actual or threatened traumatic event; it could lead to an actual behavioral health(BH) diagnosis known as PTSD
            Postcombat and operational stress
Q- Which of the following choices provide professional ministry support to leaders in fulfilling their combat and operational stress identification and intervention responsibilities?
             the unit ministry team (UMT)
Q- . ________ ends when the organization is again prepared to conduct collective training and operations
            Recovery
Q- Which of the following choices comprise training domains?
            operational, institutional and self-development
Q- Training to reach an accepted proficiency level is a tenet of which principle of training?
            Training to standard
Q- Training under an expected operational environment for the mission is a tenet of which principle of training?
            Train as you will fight
Q- Unit training involves how many principles?
            11
Q- Which core maintenance process involves reporting problems that degrade equipment before they become catastrophic?
            Performance observation
Q- Which core maintenance process assures high quality and establishes a predictable service life using the best technical standard?
            Single-standard repair
Q- Which recovery operation involves assistance from a second similar or heavier class vehicle?
            Like recovery
Q- Which level of maintenance involves off-system component repair and/or end item repair and return to the supply system or, by exception, back to the owning unit, performed by national level maintenance providers?
            Sustainment maintenance
Q- Which of the following choices are involved with recovery operations?
            Dedicated recovery
Q- Paragraphs and subparagraphs should not be omitted. What should be entered if the information requested in specific paragraphs or
            subparagraphs is not known unknown 
Q- How many digits does the SIR number always contain?
             six–digit number
Q- Which core maintenance process uses operator and maintenance personnel to restore an equipment item to full functionality as originally designed or engineered?
            Fault repair
Q- What are the two main sections of the SIR?
            Subject paragraph, 12 subparagraphs
Q- Which of the following choices are gradually increased to produce the desired physiological effect?
            Intensity (resistance and pace).
            Exercise volume (number of sets and repetitions).
            Duration (time)
Q- Which core maintenance process assures high quality and establishes a predictable service life using the best technical standard?
            single-standard repair



















  



























 



5 comments:

  1. Admiring the time and effort you put into your blog and detailed information you offer!..
    Personal development

    ReplyDelete
    Replies
    1. Thank you Asim Shaikh for providing feed back.....

      Delete
  2. This comment has been removed by a blog administrator.

    ReplyDelete
  3. Forewarning.. i got a 75% using these answers (multiple are wrong)

    ReplyDelete
  4. I wanted to thank you for this great read!! I definitely enjoying every little bit of it I have you bookmarked to check out new stuff you post. Kopar at Newton Chip Eng Seng

    ReplyDelete

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